Published online by Cambridge University Press: 24 October 2008
1. It is trivial that
for all integers n ≥ 0 implies sn = 0 (n = 0, 1, 2, …). This conclusion is no longer true if it is only known that (1·1) is true for an infinity of n. But we shall show that the truth of (1·1) for, roughly speaking, one-half of all positive integers, together with an order condition on the magnitude of sn, ensures sn = 0 for all n. This follows from
Theorem 1. Let a1 < a2 < … be positive integers, n(R) the number of a's not exceeding R, sn a sequence of complex numbers. If
(ii) sn = ο(nK)as n tends to infinity
then sn = P(n), where P(x) is a polynomial of degree less than K.
* Rogosinski, W. W., ‘On Hausdorff's methods of summability’, Proc. Cambridge Phil. Soc. 38 (1942), 166–92, Theorem 2.CrossRefGoogle Scholar
* Messenger of Math. 46 (1917), 175–82.Google Scholar See also Titchmarsh, , Theory of Fourier integrals (Oxford, 1937), p. 320.Google Scholar
* See, e.g., Paley-Wiener, , Fourier transforms in the complex domain (New York, 1934), pp. 68ff.Google Scholar
† Lindelöf, , Calcul des résidus (Paris, 1905), Ch. v, pp. 108ff.Google Scholar
* See Paley-Wiener, loc. cit., Theorem v.
† For a proof see, e.g., Banach, , Opérations linéaires, Ch. iv.Google Scholar