The current operating procedure of the Federal Reserve, as described by Richard Davis and interpreted by me, entails picking long-term growth rates (meaning six months and longer) for monetary aggregates, while simultaneously specifying short-run conditions for the federal funds rates and monetary aggregates which are felt to be consistent with long-term goals. But, he also states, because of “shorter term developments,” that the specified shorter term growth rates for monetary aggregates might not be equivalent to the desired long-term growth rate. This operating procedure disturbs me for two reasons. First, there is evidence demonstrating that different growth rates in the money stock which last as long as six months result in different levels of economic activity; thus six months should be the maximum control period not the minimum. Secondly, I don't see what meaning a long-term growth path for monetary aggregates can have if the Federal Reserve lets “shorter term” development define the short-term growth paths for money in a way which is inconsistent with the longer term goals.