The idea of the invisibility of God is by no means so obvious as one might assume.
—Rudolf BultmannFootnote 1
Introduction
John 1:18a has enjoyed a long history as a star witness in theological accounts of divine transcendence.Footnote 2 For many early Christians, “no one has ever seen God” (θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε) suggests that the human inability to see God is descriptive of God’s invisible nature and thus invokes the metaphysical distinction between the worlds of being and becoming in Platonism. The phrase “no one has ever seen” becomes synonymous with the implications of the adjective “invisible” (ἀόρατος) in the Platonist construal of reality. In this context, ἀόρατος often forms a constellation with many other alpha privatives to describe God as “immortal” (ἀθάνατος) and “bodiless” (ἀσώματος) and thus incapable of change and decay.Footnote 3 Visibility and invisibility become the hallmarks of a hierarchy of being: the material human world and the rarefied noetic realm of an immaterial creator. Before offering a reading of John 1:18a and of the nature of divine invisibility in the Fourth Gospel, this section asks whether the Platonist reading of 1:18 finds traction within the literature of Early Judaism.
The answers are complicated. While the theologies of Second Temple Judaism admit of similar understandings of divine invisibility, they also suggest that a distinction exists between “invisible” and “unseen.”Footnote 4 Here I take “invisibility” to mean what I have described above: that God is invisible in his being and thus necessarily invisible to empirical sense. The Jewish authors for whom the notion of “invisibility” manifests itself most prominently are—potentially—Aristobulus (Praep. ev. 8.9.38–8.10.17),Footnote 5 Sib. Or. (1–3), Josephus (Ag. Ap. 2.17, 23; B.J. 7.341–357), and Philo (Opif. and across his oeuvre).Footnote 6 These authors entertain notions of the worlds of being and becoming similar to those of some early Christians and Middle Platonist philosophers.
By contrast, I take “unseen” to refer to the challenge that God’s majesty and holiness pose to human seeing rather than to his intrinsically invisible nature. “Unseen” therefore characterizes God as difficult to see because his visibility is so overpowering that it endangers mortal life.Footnote 7 Here, the Hebrew BibleFootnote 8 and LXXFootnote 9 stand alongside a variety of deuterocanonical sources,Footnote 10 early Christian literature,Footnote 11 rabbinic texts,Footnote 12 and the Merkabah and Shiur Koma mysticismsFootnote 13 in their portrayal of a visible God. Access to God differs across these texts and seeing him remains difficult to achieve and highly dangerous. However, whether in the visions of mysticism—which nonetheless have substantial physical effects—or in the concrete experience of theophany or apocalyptic journey, God remains overwhelmingly visible: he is too glorious and too bright to see fully. Human flesh cowers in his presence because of its sinful and less powerful nature rather than its failure to be immaterial. Thus, rather than an absolute immateriality, God’s holiness, power, and size appear to distinguish him from humanity.Footnote 14 The literature of early Judaism does not therefore present a decisive background or set of parallels that support reading Platonist notions of invisibility in John 1:18.Footnote 15
Whatever the case, Johannine scholarship rarely makes the distinction between “invisible” and “unseen.” Many have relied on older, now problematic understandings of Israelite religion and early Judaism as “aniconic,” in which it is “classically Jewish” to understand God as invisible; but this view fails to comport with the visuality of the theophanies across the Jewish Scriptures and other early Jewish texts.Footnote 16 Others have assumed that because John is hellenized, he must consider God to be invisible, such that the phrase “no one has ever seen” describes God’s invisible nature in a way that has close parallels with a Platonist understanding.Footnote 17 One striking example is the recent proposal that Jesus can manifest the Jewish God of Hebrew Scripture but not the “transcendent” God who appears to stand behind him.Footnote 18
By contrast, several John scholars assert that John 1:18—and John’s general conception of God and of sight—have little to do with Platonist metaphysics.Footnote 19 John never describes the worlds of being and becoming in Platonist terms, and he never uses alpha privatives to describe God’s ontology. Likewise, John 1:18 does not describe God so much as it describes human inability to see him.Footnote 20 John may deploy “prepositional metaphysics” to distinguish the Son from the Father, but he appears unconcerned to establish Platonist notions of transcendence.Footnote 21 For instance, in John 12:28, God speaks with an audible voice from heaven, thus revealing a disregard for, or even an ignorance of, metaphysics. A Platonist reading is not, therefore, the only way to understand John 1:18, although this does not negate the possibility of Platonist or even Stoic elements in the Gospel. John was a hellenized Jew; yet he remained free to accept, reject, modify, or ignore the worldviews of his time, and his portrayal of Jesus indicates someone who knew his own mind.
Here one must recognize two further truths. The first is that the distinction I make between “invisible” and “unseen” is not always clear in the primary texts. Some authors have enlisted the language of “invisibility” and incorporeality to describe a God whom they simultaneously depict as available to human vision.Footnote 22 Aspects of my definitions of “invisible” and “unseen” appear to merge in some accounts, however philosophically inconsistent such an overlap may be. From Philo onward, some Jews and then many early Christians reconciled an overwhelmingly visible God with an overwhelmingly invisible one.Footnote 23 Different linguistic and philosophical modes of thought have come to describe the same God; and I make the distinction between “invisible” and “unseen” not to categorize John as being on one side of a Platonist divide but in order to underscore the nuance that must attend any attempt to understand what John means by seeing or not seeing God. John’s Gospel likely exists in a theological space in which “unseen” and “invisible” have begun to coincide rather than rigidly demarcate one view of God from another. Furthermore, the incarnation is pushing John into new understandings of what seeing and invisibility can mean.
The second, related truth is the basic but important observation that ancient Near Eastern, Israelite, and Greco-Roman religion share a goal with Platonism, Christianity, early Judaism, and the rabbis: each hopes to achieve and/or maintain the vision of their god(s).Footnote 24 The question is not so much whether seeing God is possible or good, but how and when one can achieve it and to what degree. This “how” varies. It depends on the “what” and “who” of the god(s) in question and how they reveal themselves. It also depends on the “what” and “who” of human beings in relationship to deity and on the epistemologies their theologies delimit.Footnote 25 Thus, the distinction between “invisible” and “unseen” operates within a broader religious trajectory in which nearly all the religions and philosophical schools closest to Christianity participate, albeit in complex and widely divergent ways.
In this article, I therefore read John 1:18 against the backdrop of the ancient endeavor to see God. However, while I follow those who do not assume that John’s God is invisible in the sense I have defined it, I also recognize that the only sight of God that John permits is via Jesus.Footnote 26 I will therefore argue that one must read John 1:18 within the wider context of John, such that even though the Gospel limits the sight of God to Jesus, Jesus’s body need not restrict the fullness of God’s visibility within it—even if that visibility is not obvious. Two features of the Gospel lead me to make such a claim. The first is that John describes Jesus as presenting the sight of God (John 12:45; 14:9; 20:28–29). The second is that John suggests that Jesus himself appeared in the theophanies. Read alongside both, the claim in John 1:18 becomes one of degree and not of category; its meaning draws closer to “no one has ever [fully] seen God [yet].”Footnote 27 I make this argument by reading John 1:18 first in its immediate context and then alongside the other “seeing God” passages, especially 12:45 and 14:9. From there, I ask how John understands the nature of Jesus’s preexistence and of divine visibility in the theophanies by turning to John’s use of Isaiah (John 12:37–43). I then return to the syntax of 1:18a before offering conclusions about the sight of God that Jesus presents—even if one insists on reading 1:18 as a blanket statement regarding the direct sight of God for all time.
The Context and Challenges of John 1:18
Scholarship often links the concept of seeing God in John 1:18 to the comparison that John draws between Jesus and Moses in 1:16–18. The law “was given through Moses”; “grace and truth” have been given through Jesus Christ (1:17).Footnote 28 Thus, “no one has ever seen God,” but Jesus—the only God—has made him known (1:18).Footnote 29 At Sinai, seeing the fullness of God’s glory would have killed Moses, but Jesus has “exegeted” the Father and comes from his “breast” (κόλπος) (1:18). While John 1:18 fails to mention that Jesus sees God, most studies of sight in 1:18 argue that the reference to not seeing is meant to elevate Jesus above any figure to whom later tradition or even the Torah has granted the vision of God. Jesus must therefore be able to see God in ways that Moses could not, and Jesus thereby excels him. The context of John 1:18 thus suggests that the sight of God is possible: Jesus has attained it. Moreover, as a means of underscoring Jesus’s epistemic authority, John will state that Jesus has seen God (John 6:46; cf. 3:11–13; 5:19; 8:38). What is less certain is whether Jesus’s ability to see God can become available to humanity.Footnote 30
One can begin to answer this question by noting that the distinction between Moses and Jesus also turns on the ability to make God visible. John understands Jesus to make God visible in the incarnation. In John 1:14, the Logos became “flesh” and “tabernacled among us.” The first thing John chooses to say of this act is “we have seen his glory, glory as of the unique one of the Father.” “Tabernacling” in flesh appears to result in visible glory (cf. Exod 40:34–38 LXX). As the Logos, who is God (1:1), and who comes from the Father’s κόλπος Jesus can “exegete” the Father (1:18). Jesus makes the kind of relationship he had with the Father available between humanity, himself, and the Father.Footnote 31 Such “exegesis” and intimacy are the result of becoming visible σάρξ and the achievement of works on earth, by which Jesus makes God known through his body and person.
John also joins seeing the divine glory of Jesus’s signs to seeing the Father in Jesus. In John 12:45 and 14:9, Jesus claims that to see him is to see the Father; and he makes both statements during the hour of his glorification (John 12:23) and in the context of commentary on his signs, works, and glory (John 12:37–43; 14:11).Footnote 32 The Father himself is visible in Jesus; and the timing of Jesus’s claims suggests that both the Father and his glory become especially visible during his crucifixion and resurrection. Nevertheless, the sight is restricted to Jesus. However, John makes no qualifications about the fullness of that vision.Footnote 33 Furthermore, he uses the same perfect form of “see” (ἑώρακεν), to deny the sight of God (John 1:18); to refer to Jesus’s own sight of the Father (John 6:46); to describe the sight of Jesus as the Father (John 14:9); and to describe Thomas’s sight of Jesus as God (John 20:29). He thus deploys the most theologically and even philosophically suggestive verb available to situate the sight of God in Jesus.Footnote 34 The “journey” of ὁράω across the Fourth Gospel mirrors the journey of belief itself: from a lack of the sight of God to a complete recognition of him in the risen Christ.
With regard to the Platonist understanding of “invisible,” one may further note here that whether John assumes a Platonist metaphysics or not, he takes no pains in John 12:45 or 14:9 to explain how the sight of God in Jesus comports with Platonism’s metaphysical constraints.Footnote 35 He does not distinguish noetic from physical seeing.Footnote 36 He does not outline a theory of symbolism in which the Father can remain invisible and transcendent in heaven but can somehow be “seen” in Jesus. Rather, Jesus brings the divine and human together: seeing Jesus is seeing the Father. John never qualifies the presence of God in Jesus as being opposed to Jesus’s flesh even if seeing God in Jesus requires more than what unaided mortals can achieve (cf. John 3:6; 6:63). For instance, Jesus does not correct Thomas for declaring “my Lord and my God” (John 20:28–29). Regardless of whether one reads Thomas’s seeing as problematic, Jesus himself characterizes “My Lord and my God” as belief that results from seeing his own body: “put my finger here, and see my hands . . . you have believed because you have seen” (John 20:27, 29). However John understands the ontological relationship of God to Jesus’s body, he is clear that Jesus makes God visible in and through it.
Yet, if one returns to the earlier distinction between Jesus and Moses, the challenging fact remains that Moses and the Law “given through Moses” (1:17) also made God visible. It designated the holy place and legislation by which God could be seen in Israel’s midst (e.g., Exod 25:8; 34:39 LXX).Footnote 37 The challenge is that John knows this, just as he knows the theophanies that occur in various parts of the Jewish Scriptures, but he still claims in John 1:18 that no one has ever seen God and then shows across the Gospel that only Jesus has made him known and visible.
But why would John allude to the tabernacle and temple in order to depict the visibility of God in Jesus if he did not already understand that imagery to convey the prior visibility of God to Israel? I have already suggested that the distinction between “invisible” and “unseen” discourages hellenistic metaphysics as the answer. More probably, John deploys Platonist concepts when it suits him but with less consistency than Philo. Hellenistic metaphysics aside, then, a second answer suggests that John is eager to elevate Jesus at the expense of Israelite and Jewish heroes.
One popular response has been that John 1:18 polemicizes against figures like Enoch or Moses in an effort to reduce their authority vis-à-vis Jesus.Footnote 38 While John undoubtedly emphasizes that Jesus has seen God more fully than any other, this explanation does not account for the many theophanies that occur in John’s Bible. Is John contradicting them?Footnote 39 The challenge here is that John draws heavily on the authority of his Scriptures. They are the only external literature he directly quotes, and he is eager to show their fulfilment. His Jesus claims that “Scripture cannot be broken” (John 10:35), that “salvation comes from the Jews” (4:22); and he effectively “subpoenas” Moses (John 5:46), Abraham (John 8:56), and Isaiah (John 12:41) because they attest to him in some way. Likewise, across the Gospel, Jesus criticizes “the Jews” not because of their Scriptures, but because “the Jews” do not accept the Scriptures’ witness to himself. If the Scriptures that narrate the theophanies are so crucial to John’s understanding of Jesus, then it is difficult to accept that John dismisses the theophanies wholesale.
“Isaiah Saw His Glory”
I therefore turn to how John understands theophany. The first step in understanding John’s approach to the theophanies is to recognize that the patriarchs and prophets have anticipated Jesus. For Abraham (John 8:56–59; cf. Gen 18:1–33), Isaiah (John 12:41; cf. Isa 6:1–10; 52:13–53:1), and Zechariah (John 19:37; cf. Zech 12:10 MT) this anticipation overlaps with their own visual experiences of God.Footnote 40 John’s references to Isaiah 53:1 (John 12:38) and 6:10 (John 12:40) offer the clearest way forward in the attempt to understand whether John thinks God himself is visible in the theophanies to which he alludes.Footnote 41 John’s portrayal of Isaiah suggests that John has not diminished or contradicted the authority of the Jewish Scriptures; rather, he has re-interpreted several of its theophanies as Christological.
The context of John 12:41 illuminates how John draws the sight of God and of Jesus together. In John 12:23, Jesus announces that “the hour has come in order that the Son of Man might be glorified (δοξασθῇ)” (John 12:23). He calls on the Father to glorify his name; and the Father responds that he has “glorified it and will glorify it again” (John 12:28). Jesus then goes on to describe his death as being “lifted up” (ὑψωθῶ) (John 12:32), which suggests that his glorification involves his crucifixion. The link to Isaiah begins with John’s use of Isa 53:1 and Isa 6:10 to explain why people have not believed in Jesus despite seeing his signs (John 12:38–40).
In the wider context of both Isaiah texts, the subjects of these passages are also “lifted up” and “glorified.” In Isa 52:13 LXX “lifted up and glorified” (ὑψωθήσεται καὶ δοξασθήσεται) depict the Servant of the Lord while in Isaiah 6:1 “exalted/lifted up and lifted up” (ὑψηλοῦ καὶ ἐπηρμένου) describe the Lord’s throne, and the Lord’s “glory” (δόξα) fills the “house.”Footnote 42 John’s use of both the verbs in Isaiah 52:13 (John 12:23, 28, 32) in the same context as his quotations of Isaiah 6:10 and 53:1 thus appears to incorporate Isaiah’s descriptions of two vastly different kinds of glory into a single account of Jesus’s glory. One is the incongruous glory granted to the suffering servant in Isaiah 52:13, otherwise disfigured by the sins of those for whom he suffers. The other is the temple-filling glory of God’s radiant majesty in Isaiah 6:1.
John makes the link explicit in John 12:41 when he writes that Isaiah said “these things” (ταῦτα) because “he saw (εἶδεν) his glory (δόξαν αὐτοῦ).” Here, “these things” (ταῦτα) unites both quotations (Isa 6:10 and 53:1), revealing them to be the result of (ὅτι) what Isaiah saw. What Isaiah saw and what prompted him to speak was “his glory” (δόξα αὐτοῦ), and the antecedent of αὐτοῦ is Jesus.Footnote 43 Thus, far from denying Isaiah’s vision of God, John uses it to draw the sight of God, the Servant, and Jesus together. Each is “lifted up” and “glorified”; and, for John, the glory of God and of the Servant coalesce in Isaiah’s vision of Jesus’s glory.Footnote 44
John 12:41 thus explains what the sight of Jesus means even as John uses both Isa 53:1 and 6:10 to indicate why “the Jews” cannot see Jesus properly. John knows that Isaiah saw the Lord; and he shows that Jesus’s glory was revealed in the Lord Isaiah saw, God himself.Footnote 45 Moreover, John’s use of Isa 53:1 and 6:10 draws sight and belief together. Directly after the Isaiah quotations, Jesus himself proclaims that seeing him is seeing the Father, just as believing in Jesus is believing in the one who sent him (John 12:44–45). The sight of God in Jesus is therefore possible even if God may choose to obscure it by blinding some (Isa 6:9–10). However, one must acknowledge that John never claims the full vision of God—or of Jesus—for any patriarch or prophet. Abraham saw Jesus’s “day,” Isaiah saw his “glory,” and Moses bore witness to him in the Torah. These are partial visions in which God appears via angels and glory clouds and in a variety of brief and terrifying glimpses. Such theophanies never deny God’s direct and overwhelming presence, even as they never fully reveal it.
John’s use of Isaiah thus yields two conclusions for John 1:18. The first is that one need not read John as contradicting Jewish Scriptures. If Jesus is the subject of the theophanies and if one understands that Jesus is God,Footnote 46 then no contradiction need exist. The second is that one need not read John 1:18 to affirm the intrinsic invisibility of God. Read alongside John 1:18 and the theophany accounts of the Jewish Scriptures, John’s own understanding of theophany is that the patriarchs and prophets never fully witnessed God to the extent that they never fully witnessed Jesus, and vice versa; but this does not entail that God is invisible in a Platonic sense.
John 1:18a can thus be read to describe the theophanies insofar as they were never entirely complete; yet the rejoinder of John 1:14–18, 12:45, and 14:9 is that the theophanies take on unprecedented fullness in Jesus (John 1:17). For John, Jesus is sufficiently aligned with God, and God with Jesus, such that John can equate the theophany granted to Isaiah—and, presumably, theophanies granted to others in Israel’s history—with seeing Jesus, even if the sight was fleeting in the past. However, in the incarnation Jesus now presents the unprecedented sight of God. Many scholars here deploy the term “mediation” to describe how Jesus makes God visible,Footnote 47 and others suggest that the Logos comes to replace God in John’s understanding of theophany.Footnote 48 Both readings are appropriate so long as one avoids two assumptions. The first is that “mediation” entails that God is not fully or directly present in Jesus. The second is that the pre-incarnate Christ is not less “transcendent” than God according to a criterion of (in)visibility but actually “overlaps” with God.Footnote 49
Here I return to the distinction I made between “invisible” and “unseen.” If one assumes that God the Father is necessarily invisible, then one must assume a break with the Jewish Scriptures and a hierarchy of transcendence between Jesus and God or within God predicated on invisibility. Yet the Jewish Scriptures never portray God as intrinsically invisible, and I have shown that one cannot assume this to be the case in the Second Temple and early Jewish literature. John’s use of Isaiah indicates that God’s visibility in the past can be of a piece with his visibility in Jesus.Footnote 50 Jesus does not replace God in the theophanies; rather, he is present because God is present. What is clear for John is that Jesus has always been God (John 1:1; 8:59; 12:41; 17:24) and has always been able to become visible in some form.Footnote 51 What is clear from his Scriptures is that God has never had trouble in making himself visible even if people are unable to see him fully. The theophanies can thus be read christologically but without a metaphysics that requires one to read Jesus in the place of God on the grounds that the difference between them is that Jesus is irrevocably visible and God is irrevocably invisible.Footnote 52 Jesus is visible because God is visible and vice versa, but this does not mean that God is easy to see or that Jesus is easy to recognize as God.
The Syntax of John 1:18a: “No One Has Ever Seen God” (θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε)
Given John’s understanding of theophany, I return to my proposed reading of 1:18a: “no one has ever [fully] seen God [yet].” Thus far I have examined how the context of the Gospel encourages this view; however, I have not examined the syntax of the verse. If John 1:18 is directed at past claims about seeing God, then the references to past time in his statement are important; but one must begin with θεόν. John’s anarthrous but not indefinite use of θεός across the prologue has received substantial attention, and many scholars read John 1:18 to identify both the Father and the Son as God, or at least as divine.Footnote 53 By 1:18, this is not a new concept in the prologue; but the proximity of an affirmation of the divinity of the Son to the claim that no one has seen God complicates that claim. John 1:14 has already shown that the incarnate Logos reveals a visible glory, but now the same being whose self-disclosure is chiefly visual is somehow also the God no one has ever seen.
The answer to this riddle may lie in the perfect “has seen” (ἑώρακεν) and the extent to which it can limit “ever” (πώποτε). The sense of “no one has ever seen” (οὐδεις ἑώρακεν) is that no one has ever seen God and that the repercussions of this lack carry into the present. This is certainly the case in John 5:37, in which Jesus draws on Deut 4:12 and uses “ever” (πώποτε) to tell “the Jews” that they have never seen God’s form (John 6:46). However, the irony is that Jesus—the “unique God” (μονογενὴς θεός)—is standing in front of them; and the entire Gospel anticipates the proper recognition of Jesus (John 20:28). Past failure to see may therefore explain disbelief, but it can give way to proper seeing. God can become visible in Jesus.
Thus, “ever” (πώποτε) may mean “ever” or “yet” rather than “at any time in the past, present, or future.” The adverb almost always accompanies verbs in the past tense, as if to suggest that no one has ever done “x” up to the present moment, but things may change in the future.Footnote 54 This is the case in occurrences of “ever” (πώποτε) across the Gospel (John 5:37; 6:35; 8:33;) as well as in 1 John 4:12 and Luke 19:30, which account for all the occurrences in the New Testament—with the notable exception of John 6:35. There, “ever” (πώποτε) modifies “will thirst” (διψήσει), a verb in the future tense. Those who believe in Jesus “will never thirst”; yet this rare occurrence of a future tense verb with “ever” (πώποτε) only strengthens the sense that the tense of the verb sets the remit of “ever” (πώποτε). Only after belief occurs will thirst end. The grammar of “no one has ever seen God” (θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε) can thereby comport with John’s portrayal of the theophanies and with John 12:45 and 14:9, which suggest that the time to see God has arrived.Footnote 55
Nevertheless, I admit that I cannot entirely rule out the fact that John may be describing a state of affairs for all people across all time. The occurrence of “no one has ever seen God” (θεὸν οὐδεὶς πώποτε τεθέαται) in 1 John 4:12 (cf. 1 John 4:20) pushes in that direction, and commentators often take “ever” (πώποτε) to apply to all time. One can also ask why John did not choose the less ambiguous “not yet” (οὐκέτι).Footnote 56 Moreover, the question of where John’s prologue stands regarding the narrative time of the Gospel remains a challenge. If the prologue is summarizing the Gospel, then it seems to prohibit the sight of God to all people, despite the incarnation. If it is prologue to and thus anticipates the revelation of the incarnation—which it nevertheless appears to summarize—then 1:18 may still refer to the time prior to the incarnation.Footnote 57 While I stand by the reading I have presented, I wish to ask further what bearing my study has for those who insist that 1:18 applies to all time.
The Challenge of Recognizing God in Jesus
Three factors must condition John 1:18 regardless of how one reads “has ever seen” (ἑώρακεν πώποτε). The first is that John limits the revelation of God to Jesus (John 12:45; 14:6–9) and that he uses sight to indicate how this revelation occurs (John 14:7–11; cf. 6:40). The second is that if John is making a statement for all time, then John 1:14, 12:41, 12:45, 14:9, and 20:28–29 have mitigated it: somehow the Father is visible in Jesus. The third is that John 1:14, 12:41, 12:45, 14:9, and 20:29 are themselves mitigated: the incarnation qualifies what one sees of God. Unlike the theophanies in the Jewish Scriptures, the Father that one sees in Jesus rarely causes people to die or shrink away in terror (but see John 6:19; 18:6), and across the Gospel the sight of Jesus—one may assume—is often mundane (John 6:42).
Indeed, the visibility of God in Jesus is rarely obvious if one is looking for the overwhelming and dangerous glory of the theophanies. While John suggests that Jesus’s preexistent glory with the Father is only fully visible in heaven in the sense that the Father himself may only be fully visible in heaven (John 1:18; 17:24; cf. 1 John 3:2), the divine glory is no less present in the radical and counterintuitive visibility of the crucifixion, the marks of which remain visible on Jesus’s resurrected body (John 1:14; 12:23).Footnote 58 John thus presents a striking irony, given the deadly majesty of the theophanies: the incarnate Logos dies for claiming to be and revealing God (John 8:59; 10:30; 19:7), yet seeing the crucified Christ will result in life for those who believe (John 6:40). A fundamental visibility undergirds the encounter with God whether one approaches his dangerous fullness or Jesus’s counterintuitive but life-giving crucifixion and resurrection.
Once again, then, the distinction between “invisible” and “unseen” does not require us to read John as depicting God’s visibility at some remove from Jesus’s visibility because the latter is material. The glory of heaven is the glory of the crucified Jesus because the Father is in and with the crucified one (John 14:10). John 1:18 (5:37; 6:46) may therefore forbid the sight of God’s glory as it is in heaven (except to Jesus, 6:46) until the eschaton (17:24). Nevertheless, John also reveals that Jesus’s humanity presents the unprecedented sight of God in a fullness that may be difficult to grasp but is no less present despite the difficulty.Footnote 59 John can therefore call on Isaiah to confirm the harmony of both glories—that of a God whose glory fills the temple and that of the servant whose glory results from his physical agony—because Isaiah saw them unite in Christ.
Conclusion
This article has itself worked to harmonize the seemingly contradictory statements in John regarding the sight of God: no one can see God (John 1:18), yet Jesus makes him visible (John 12:45; 14:9). By uncoupling John 1:18 from a Platonist understanding of invisibility, I have shown that it can comport with John 12:45 and 14:9 without needing to suggest levels of transcendence between Jesus and God that a priori assumptions about materiality determine. Rather, John 1:18 anticipates 12:45 and 14:9 as indicating the means by which God makes himself visible on earth. “Visibility” and “invisibility” thus become “seeing” and “not seeing” in John because he is more concerned with the revelation that visibility affords than he is with the ontological categories that (in)visibility can demarcate. The question of whether God and his glory are intrinsically visible is never at stake for John; rather, he is concerned with how they are visible and thus with how one can see them—two questions he intertwines with belief (John 6:40; 11:40; 20:28–31).Footnote 60